Research Methods Pasco – Questions and Answers
Research Methods Pasco – Questions and Answers
1.The purpose of research design is to
a. select the instruments for a study
b. provide a valid, credible answer to a problem
c. determine the best type of statistical analysis
d. balance internal and external validity
2. Bias in research
a. answers research questions
b. provides control of extraneous variables
c. is error that affects the results
d. is always controlled
3. Control of extraneous sources of error in quantitative research is provided by
a. randomization of subjects
b. holding conditions constant
c. using factors as independent variables
d. all of the above
4. Internal validity in quantitative research design is an assessment of
a. the control of extraneous variables
b. the generalizability of the results
c. how well a test measure what it was intended to measure
d. the accuracy of the test
5. If an unplanned event occurs whiles an experiment is being conducted and affects
the results, ______ is a threat to the interpretation of the results.
a. maturation
b. regression
c. pretesting
d. history
6. Researchers assign subject to group randomly primarily to control for
a. selection
b. maturation
c. regression
d. subject attrition
7. Diffusion of treatment results when
a. treatments are given to all subjects
b. one group knows about and its influenced by treatments other groups are
receiving
c. the researcher effectively persists the treatment
d. one group resents another
8. External validity for quantitative research refers to
a. the generalizability of the results
b. how well the research was done
c. the characteristics of the subjects
d. the use of research results in only the setting in which the experiment was done.
9. A sample in quantitative research is all the following except for
a. the group selected by the researcher
b. the group of subjects studied
c. the group to whom the researcher intends to generalize results
d. the group selected from a population
10. A random sample
a. must be as large as possible
b. is one in which every subject has an equal chance of being selected
c. is the same as randomization
d. both b and c
11. Stratified random sampling
a. uses existing physical conditions in order to form groups
b. takes random samples from each subgroup
c. is less efficient than sample random sampling
d. needs more subjects than simple random sampling
12. The degree to which the scores from the test are meaningful and appropriate is called
a. validity
b. reliability
c. accuracy
d. stability
13. The reliability of a test is an estimate of
a. consistency
b. generalizability
c. what kind of error exists in the test
d. both a and b are correct
14. In the procedures section of most quantitative studies, there is an indication of
a. where, when, and how the data were collected
b. who participated in the study
c. how the data were analyzed
d. both a and b are correct
15. Probability samples are
a. usually proportional
b. used primarily experimental research
c. drawn from a large population
d. about the same as volunteer samples
16. Which of the following statements is true (more than one may be true) concerning descriptive statistics?
a. descriptive statistics are used to summarize data
b. descriptive statistics are used to infer population characteristics from a sample
c. descriptive statistics are not needed to interpret inferential statistics
d. correlation coefficients are descriptive statistics
e. the choice of descriptive statistics depends on the purpose of the research and size of the sample
17. Scales of measurement that provide categories without order are called
a. interval
b. ordinal
c. nominal
d. ratio
18. Percentile scores are examples of a scale of measurement called
a. nominal
b. interval
c. ordinal
d. ratio
19. Frequency distribution are represented by all of the following except
a. histograms
b. polygons
c. normal curve
d. rank-order grouping
20. The _____ is the most widely used measure of central tendency
a. mean
b. median
c. standard deviation
d. mode
21. Given the following scores: 4,7,7,8,10,12,12,12,18; the mean is _____: the median is
_____: and the mode is _____.
a. 8, 12, 10
b. 8, 10, 12
c. 10,10,12
d. 10,10,10
22. The average amount of dispersion of a set of scores around the mean is assessed
numerically by the
a. range
b. standard deviation
c. percentile ranks
d. median
23. Plus one standard deviation is always at about the ______ percentile in a normal
distribution
a. 60th
b. 50th
c. 90th
d. 84th
24. Which of the following correlations shows the strongest relationship?
a. 50
b. -70
c. 67
d. -30
25. A good reason to graph correlations is to find
a. curvilinear relationships
b. positive relationships
c. negative relationships
d. both a and b
26. Evidence based on content is most appropriate for
a. predictive tests
b. achievement tests
c. aptitude tests
d. both b and c are correct
27. Test criterion relationships differ from criterion referenced tests in that
a. criterion- referenced tests used norm groups while test criterion relationships use
criteria
b. criterion – referenced evidence is a type of reliability; criterion-referenced tests
uses norm criteria
c. test criterion relationship is for validity; criterion-referenced is for reliability
d. criterion–referenced tests use criteria; test criterion relationship is for
validity
28. Internal consistency estimates of reliability are widely used because
a. only one form of a test is needed
b. the reliability coefficient is usually very high
c. it is the easiest to calculate
d. it is more accurate than stability ;and equivalent estimates
29. Standardized tests are different from locally devised instruments in that standardized
tests
a. have norms as well as technical support
b. have greater flexibility
c. are more valid
d. have uniform administration and scoring procedures
30. The purpose of an aptitude test is to
a. measure intelligence
b. predict performance
c. measure multiple aspects of potential strengths
d. assess achievement
31. Non-cognitive inventories are generally
a. susceptible to faking
b. high in reliability
c. high in validity
d. socially desirable
32. Choose the correct sequence for developing a questionnaire
a. defining objectives, justification, writing items, pretesting
b. pretesting, defining objectives, justification, writing items
c. justification, pretesting, defining objectives, writing items
d. justification, defining objectives, writing items, pretesting
33. All of the following should be adhered to in writing statements or questions except f
a. avoiding biased items
b. avoiding negatively worded items
c. using double- barrelled questions
d. making items clear
e. marking items short
34. Social desirability is a form of
a. bias
b. unreliability
c. situational constraint
d. both a and c are correct
35. The format of a questionnaire should
a. use every available space on each page
b. use abbreviated items to save space
c. put important items to save space
d. be as short as possible in number of pages
36. Closed-form questions or statements are best used for
a. easily categorized information
b. initial pilot studies
c. large-scale studies
d. both a and c are correct
37. Likert scale and semantic differential items are similar in that both
a. use adjective opposites
b. are easy to construct
c. are difficult to score objectively
d. are scales
38. Questionnaires need to be pilot tested because
a. pretesting established reliability
b. insufficient variations in answer can be noted
c. trial data analyses can be noted
d. both a and b are collect
39. Semi structured questions in interviews are written in a format that allows
a. free response to a limited question
b. forced choice response to a limited question
c. free response to a board question
d. forced choice response to a board question
40. Which one of the following statements describes research?
a. A scientific way of generating knowledge and of solving problems.
b. Conducting an investigation into phenomena that exist in a society.
c. Findings facts about issues.
d. Gathering information from experienced people to understand phenomena.
41. The characteristic feature or attribute of an individual or an educational system that
is of interest in a study is known as a…………………………
a. Category
b. Measurement
c. Trait
d. Variable
42. In a scholarly sense, which of the following best explains a researchable problem?
When the problem…….
a. Addresses ethical and moral issues
b. Covers a wide range of perplexing issues.
c. Is appropriate for empirical investigation
d. Is interesting to the researcher
43. Which one of the following is not a source of research problem?
a. Experience
b. Lamentation
c. Literature
d. Theory
44. Which one of the following is the same as population in research?
a. Elements
b. Respondents
c. Sample
d. Sampling frame
45. Researchers use the results obtained from a sample to……………..
a. Collect convenience sample
b. Generalise to the population
c. Identify the subject used in the study
d. Strategize for the research work
46. The statement of purpose in research study could be used to…………….
a. Describe
b. Identify the design of the study
c. Identify the objective of the study
d. Specify the type of people to be used
47. When the researcher does not allow personal prejudices, beliefs, and attitudes to
influence the process of a study, then the research is on top of which characteristics
of which scientific enquire.
a. Control of bias
b. Induction
c. Precision
d. Willingness to alter beliefs
48. “I hereby declare that the preparation and presentation of the project work was
supervised in accordance with the guidelines on project work laid down by the
University of Cape coast” Which of the elements under the preliminary section of
the project report does this statement come under?
a. Abstract
b. Candidate’s declaration
c. Supervisor’s declaration
d. Title page
49. In the presentation of the project report, the correct orders of the elements are……..
a. Abstract, acknowledgement and dedication
b. Acknowledgment, abstract and dedication
c. Dedication, abstract and acknowledgement
d. Dedication, acknowledgment and title page
50. A limitation of the use of experience as a source of knowledge is that it……………….
a. Cannot be tested
b. Fades after a period of time
c. Is prone to biases
d. Offers poor direction in life
51. You used tele-conferencing to teach 8th grade students and wanted to determine its
effect on students’ achievement. What is the dependent variable?
a. 8th grade students
b. Students’ achievement
c. Teaching
d. Tele-conferencing
52. A research problem was identified by reading through journals. What is the source of
the research problem?
a. Experience
b. Ideas from external source
c. Literature
d. Theory
53. Which of the following aspect of research comes first?
a. Specific research questions
b. The purpose of study
c. The research design
d. The research problem
54. Which of the following is the most fundamental quality of an interviewer?
a. Ability to structure the interviewee
b. Being gentile in approach
c. Being knowledgeable in the problem under study
d. Being sensitive to the respondent
55. What is the independent variable in the following topic? “the effect of Teaching and
Learning Materials (TLMs) on the achievement of Basic 2 pupils at Amakom D.A in
addition of 2-digit numbers.”
a. effects
b. teaching and learning materials
c. achievement
d. teaching and learning materials and achievement
56. A researcher divided a population into sub-groups of similar characteristics. He
randomly selected people from five of the groups and used them in the study. What
sampling procedure did he use?
a. Cluster
b. Convenience
c. Purposive
d. Quota
57. In an interview an interviewer tolerates the interviewee’s pause and accepts his
unconventional and provocative opinions. What skill is the interviewer exhibiting?
a. Ability to steer the interview process
b. Being gentle in approach
c. Being sensitive to the respondent
d. Skilfully structuring the interview
58. Which one of the following is not a type of interview used for collecting data in
research?
a. Group
b. Individual
c. Mixed
d. Structured
59. Which of the following ways of knowing makes people cling to knowledge without
really understanding it?
a. Authority
b. Media myths
c. Personal experience
d. Scientific method
60. During which stage of Action Research can the researcher identify a change in the
behaviour of his client?
a. Input
b. Output
c. Planning
d. Transformation
Items 22-25 are statements followed by True and False options. Read each statement
carefully and indicate whether it is True or False by circling the letter of the correct
option.
61. A characteristic feature of experimental research that, it determines the cause-and effect relationship between variables.
a. True
b. False
62. A good research problem should be indicative of the type of research design to be used.
a. True
b. False
63. Action Research is conducted so that the results can be generalized to a population.
a. True
b. False
64. Research hypothesis indicate relationships or differences between two or more variables or groups.
a. True
b. False
65. Which of the following documents can be described as secondary source?
a. A report written by an investigator.
b. A review of a book in journal
c. An article published in a refereed journal
d. An undergraduate project work report.
66. The original articles and reports in which researchers communicate directly to the
researcher the methods and results of their study are ……………….
a. Primary sources
b. Scientific sources
c. Secondary sources
d. Traditional
67. Publications in which authors describe the works of others are referred to as …….
a. Educational index
b. Experts
c. Primary sources
d. Secondary sources
68. Rich is conducting a survey of student opinion of the dining hall at his university. Rich decided to conduct his survey by using every tenth name on the register’s alphabetical list of all students at his school. The type of sampling technique the Rich is using is ………
a. Cluster sampling
b. Random sampling
c. Stratified random sampling
d. Systematic sampling
69. Probability sampling is to systematic sampling as non-probability sampling is to……
a. Disproportional
b. Proportional sampling
c. Purposive
d. Snow-ball sampling
70. The general term applied to publications that contain description of educational
research by an author who was not a direct observer or participant is ………………
a. First-hand information
b. Journal
c. Primary source
d. Secondary source
71. A problem of the structured interview is that the ………………………
a. answers are not recorded in the interviewee’s own words
b. interviews are often too long
c. questions are all asked in the same order
d. same questions may not be asked of all interviewees
72. Mail questionnaires are used to collect data in a descriptive research when…………………..
a. The items in the questionnaire are few
b. The postal system is efficient
c. The sample of study can read and write
d. There is no need to explain the questions to subjects
73. We use the result obtained from a sample to ……………..
a. Generalized to the population
b. Identify the subject used in the study
c. Select a convenience sample
d. Stratify to the sample
74. Based on APA style, what is wrong with the following reference? Karau, Steven. K. & Williams, D. (1993). Social loafing: A meta-analytical review and theoretical integration. Journal of personality and social psychology, 65, 681 – 706.
a. Nothing is wrong with the reference
b. Only the initials of the authors’ first and middle names should be used
c. The first letters of the words in the title of the paper should be capitalized
d. The name of the journal should be underlined
75. The section which ties together the main threads revealed in the literature reviewed
is the ……………………..
a. Body
b. Introduction
c. References
d. Summary
76. Which of these is not a method of data collection?
a. Questionnaire
b. Interview
c. Experiment
d. Observation
77. Researchers use both open-ended questions to collect data. Which of the following statement are true?
a. Open ended questions directly provide quantitative data based on the researcher’s predetermined response categories
b. Open ended questions are easy to respond to from the point of view of the participants.
c. Closed-ended questions provide easy analysis to the researcher
d. Closed-ended questions directly provide qualitative data for the study.
78. Open-ended questions provide primarily_________ data.
a. Confirmatory
b. Qualitative
c. Predictive
d. Quantitative
79. Which of the following is true concerning observation?
a. It takes less time than self-report approaches
b. It costs less money than self-report approaches
c. It is often not possible to determine exactly why the people behave as they do
d. All of the above
80. The following are principles of questionnaire construction except………………..
a. embarrassing personal or threatening questions should be avoided
b. considerations may not be given to instructions regarding the way of answering the question
c. avoid double-barrelled questions
d. ambiguous, non-specific and hypothetical questions must be avoided
81. The type of interview in which the specific topics are decided in advance but the
sequence and wording can be modified during the interview is called
a. the interview guide approach
b. the informal conversational interview
c. the structured interview approach
d. a closed quantitative interview
82. When conducting an interview, asking” Anything else?, What do you mean?, why
do you feel that way?,’ etc, are all forms of
a. Contingency questions
b. Probes
c. Protocols
d. Response categories
83. The researcher has secretly placed him or herself (as a member) in the group that is
being studied. This researcher may be which of the following?
a. A complete participant
b. An observer-as-observer
c. A participant-as-observer
d. A none participant observer
84. When each member of a population has an equally likely chance of being selected, this is called a
a. Nonrandom sampling method
b. Quota sample
c. Snowball sample
d. Probability sampling method
85. Which of the following techniques yields a simple random sample?
a. Choosing volunteers from an introductory psychology class to participate
b. Listing the individuals by ethnic group and choosing a proportion from within each ethnic group at random
c. Numbering all the elements of a sampling frame and then using a random number table to pick cases from the table
d. Randomly selecting schools, and then sampling everyone within the school.
86. Which of the following is not true about stratified random sampling?
a. It involve a random selection process from identified subgroups
b. Proportions of groups in the sample must always match their population proportions
c. Disproportional stratified random sampling is especially helpful for getting large
enough subgroups samples when subgroup comparisons are to be done
d. Proportional stratified random sampling yields a representative sample
87. Which of the following statements are true?
a. The larger the sample size, the greater the sampling error
b. The more categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data analysis, the larger the sample needed
c. The fewer categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data analysis, the
larger the sample needed
d. As sample size decreases, so does the size of the confidence interval
88. Which of the following is not true a form of nonrandom sampling?
a. Snowball sampling
b. Convenience sampling
c. Cluster sampling
d. Purpose sampling
89. Which of the following will give a more “accurate” representation of the population
from which a sample has been taken?
a. A large sample based on the convenience sampling technique
b. A small sample based on the simple random sampling
c. A large sample based on simple random sampling
d. A small cluster sample
90. People who are available, volunteer, or be easily recruit are used in the sampling
method called_________
a. Simple random sampling
b. Cluster sampling
c. Systematic sampling
d. Convenience sampling
91. In which of the following nonrandom sampling techniques do the research
participants to identify other potential research participants?
a. Snowball
b. Convenience
c. Purposive
d. Quota
92. The review of literature is useful for……………………..
a. Declaring the results of the study
b. Desirable replication
c. Determining the direction of the study
d. Resolving contradictory finding
93. A strength of the convenient sample technique is that it is ……………………..
a. Appropriate for comparison of subgroups in the population
b. Efficient with large populations
c. Less costly
d. Usually a representation
94. Which one of the sampling procedures listed below is likely to produce the most
biased sample?
a. Cluster
b. Convenience
c. Stratified
d. Systematic
95. Which of the following documents can be described as secondary source?
a. A report written by an investigator.
b. A review of a book in journal
c. An article published in a refereed journal
d. An undergraduate project work report.
96. The original articles and reports in which researchers communicate directly to the
researcher the methods and results of their study are ……………….
a. Primary sources
b. Scientific sources
c. Secondary sources
d. Traditional
97. Publications in which authors describe the works of others are referred to as …….
a. Educational index
b. Experts
c. Primary sources
d. Secondary sources
98. A weakness of convenience sampling is that it is
a. Available subject might be atypical of the population
b. Expensive compared to other non-probability
c. Difficult to construct and evaluate
d. Sampling units are dependent of each other
99. It is best for interviewer to adapt the specific wording of questions to the individual characteristics of the respondent. True or false?
a. True
b. False
100. Interviewers should always dress in a businesslike manner (for example, tie, suit,dress). True or False?
a. True
b. False
101. The most common approach to recording answers in an interview is
a. audiotape recorder
b. videotape recorder
c. writing verbatim responses
d. writing notes
102. The complete observer
a. tries to become a member of the group of subjects
b. is unobtrusive
c. is detached from the setting
d. is completely informed as to the nature of the study
103. Observation is most objective when the observer has to check appropriate boxes on a
standard, easy to interpret form. True or False?
a. True
b. False
104. Observer bias can be controlled by all of the following except
a. choosing observers carefully
b. informing the observer of the nature of the study
c. carefully training observers
d. using two or more observers
105. Another word for unobtrusive measures would be
a. baised
b. unreliable
c. nonreactive
d. unbiased
106. Descriptive research investigates
a. difference and causal questions
b. dependent variables like achievement
c. the current state of affair
d. cause and effect relationships
107. Longitudinal studies investigate
a. different subjects over time
b. cross-sectional relationships
c. different subjects at the same time
d. the “same” subjects over time
108. Restricted range and homogeneous samples are especially troublesome for
a. shotgun studies
b. relationship studies
c. descriptive studies
d. longitudinal studies
109. In a prediction study the measurement of the independent variable
a. occurs before the measure of the dependent variable
b. occurs at the same time as the dependent variable
c. should be made directly by the research
d. occurs after the measure of the dependent variable
110. Multiple correlation studies
a. compare beta weights to regression coefficients
b. use many independent variables
c. use many dependent variables
d. compare R with beta weights
111. Correlations are spurious if they
a. are too high
b. are interpreted incorrectly
c. are too low
d. overestimate or underestimate the true relationship
112. Correlations should not be used to infer causation because
a. only two variable are studied
b. they are not well controlled
c. of third unmeasured variables
d. only inferential statistics can be used to infer causation
113. Survey research employs the following techniques:
a. interviews
b. observation
c. questionnaire
d. both a and c are correct
e. All of the above are correct
114. Surveys can be used for each of the following purposes except
a. causal
b. relationship
c. explanatory
d. descriptive
115. Which sequence describes the correct order of steps to be taken in conducting survey
research?
a. Define purpose, identify techniques, identify population, sample, mail, follow up.
b. define purpose, sample, identify techniques, mail, follow-up
c. Define purpose, identify population, sample, identify, techniques, samples, mail, and follow-up.
d. Define purpose, identify population, identify techniques, sample, mail, follow-up.
116. Two characteristics of ex post facto research are
a. randomization and comparison groups
b. non-manipulation and non-randomization
c. non-randomization and manipulation of the independent variable
d. non-manipulation and randomization
117. The selection of appropriate comparison groups is crucial in ex post facto research because
a. the groups must be equal in all respects except the independent variable
b. the groups must be about the same with respect to the dependent variable
c. control, manipulation, generalizability
d. generalizability, control, independence
118. The disadvantage of experimental research in educational setting is that
a. it is difficult to make causal inferences
b. internal validity is week
c. it is usually expensive to conduct
d. generalizability is often limited
119. The design that has the weakest internal validity is
a. one-group post-test only
b. one-group pre-test-post
c. A-B-A-B single subject design
d. time-series design
120. The results of pre-experimental designs usually have many plausible rival
hypotheses because of
a. insufficient planning
b. lack of random assignment
c. lack of generalizability
d. using only one group
121. The experimental designs control for which of the following sources of internal invalidity?
a. Selection, pretesting
b. Regression, history
c. Selection, maturation
d. Diffusion of treatment, selection
122. The most important advantage of using true experiments, with respect to internal
validity is that…………….to controlled.
a. selection
b. history
c. pretesting
d. experimenter effect
123. The non-equivalent groups pre-test-post-test design controls for which source of invalidity?
a. regression
b. history
c. pretesting
d. selection
124. The distinguishing characteristic of time-series designs is that
a. several treatments are compared
b. many pre-observations and post-observation are made
c. history is effectively controlled
d. subjects are randomly assigned to groups at different times
125. The A-B single subject design is particularly vulnerable to which of the following
threats to internal validity?
a. Diffusion of treatment, selection
b. Selection, history
c. Diffusion of treatment, regression
d. Instrumentation, history
126. Which of the following sets of characteristics distinguishes single-subject designs
from other experimental designs?
a. good generalizability, using baseline data
b. varying only one variable, using multiple methods
c. using comparison groups, using random assignment
d. varying only one variable, using random assignment
127. Multiple-baseline designs are especially useful for what type of situation?
a. When two or more subjects are available
b. When it is undesirable to use only one baseline
c. When it is undesirable to remove the treatment
d. When two or more types of behaviour are available for study
128. Probability statements are made in research because
a. the total number of expected cases is rarely known
b. error exists in sampling
c. of the reliability and validity of measurement
d. both b and c are correct
129. The null hypothesis is a statement that is
a. the same as the expected result
b. necessary because we can only disprove, not prove
c. stated in the negative to correspond to statistical tests
d. necessary in reporting research
130. Effect size is helpful in determining
a. confidence intervals
b. standard error
c. magnitude
d. alpha
131. Check all of the following statements that are true about level of significance
a. .05<.01.
b. .05 is better than .01.
c. .001 is better than .01.
d. 03 means being wrong in rejecting the null 3 times out of 100.
132. The t-test is used to compare
a. two or more means
b. one mean with an established value of interest
c. two means
d. both b and c correct
133. Another name for the dependent samples t-test is
a. related pairs
b. matched pairs
c. nondependent
d. independent
134. In one-way analysis of variance the researcher would report
a. one F statistic
b. three F statistic
c. results for all independent variable
d. results for all dependent variable
135. Factorial ANOWA is used when
a. there are two or more independent variables
b. there are two or more dependent variables
c. t-tests are unfeasible
d. both a and c are correct
136. Multiple comparison procedures are used because
a. it is more convenient
b. it reduces the chance of making an error in drawing conclusions
c. it is the only way to test for all group differences
d. other procedures are too conservative
137. An interaction occurs when
a. the results of each variable are different
b. the effect of each variable is different
c. two or more variables combine to result in unique effect
d. two or more people talk with each other
138. A 2 × 4 ANOVA means
a. two independent variables and one dependent variable
b. one independent variable with two levels and one dependent variable with four levels
c. eight independent variable
d. one independent variable with two levels and another independent variable with four levels
139. Examples of nonparametric statistical procedure include
a. chi-square, ANOVA, MANOVA
b. MANOVA, ANCOVA
c. chi-square, t-test
d. chi-square, median test
140. Multivariate procedures are used when
a. there are several variables
b. there is more than one related dependent variable
c. independent variables have more than two levels
d. there are multiple tests to be done
141. The purpose of a case study design is to
a. generalize to all similar cases
b. achieve a reliable answer to a problem
c. acquire an in-depth understanding of one phenomenon
d. select a site for observation
142. Case studies do not
a. develop theory
b. statistically compare groups in different experimental conditions
c. describe and analyze a practice or process
d. identify policy issues
143. The logic of purposeful sampling is that
a. a randomly representative sample can generalize to a population
b. a few information-rich cases studied in depth yields many insights about a topic
c. all case are included, even though they are not all relevant to the problem
d. available cases are used because the researcher has access to them
144. Which of the following correctly describes the phases of qualitative research?
a. Identifying the research problem, planning, data collection, data analysis, completion
b. Planning, beginning data collection, basic data collection, closing data collection, completion
c. Identifying the research hypothesis, data collection, data analysis, conclusions
d. Planning, identifying the problem, data collection, completion
145. The following strategies enhance design validity except
a. using low-inference descriptors
b. obtaining verbatim accounts
c. conducting participant review
d. ignoring negative cases
146. Validity of qualitative design is
a. increased with a very brief data collection period
b. enhanced by the used of abstract social science language rather than participants’ language
c. enhanced with member checking
d. increased by researcher interference in natural events at site
147. Design validity in qualitative research refers to
a. consistency of assessments
b. how well the descriptions and interpretations have mutual meanings
between the researcher and participants
c. use of random sampling
d. use of an experimental variable
148. Disciplined subjectivity and reflexivity recognize that
a. emotions in field work are essential in face-to-face interactions but must be
monitored and evaluated
b. most qualitative researchers are unbiased and object
c. a record of field decisions is unimportant
d. establishing audibility is not necessary
149. Extension of findings in qualitative research
a. aims at generalization of results to other populations and settings
b. depends on exact replications of the case study in other sittings
c. is enhanced with typically, authentic narrative, and specification of all design components
d. is impossible to achieve with qualitative strategies
150. A technique not used to identify patterns among categories is
a. triangulation of data
b. discarding negative or discrepant evidence
c. constructing tentative visual representations
d. doing logical cross-analysis of categories
151. Data management
a. is data analysis
b. is a manual data filling system
c. requires use of computer software program
d. uses a system to retrieve data sets and to assemble coded data in on folder or computer file
152. Qualitative results are presented by
a. omission of the context of the phenomenon studied
b. analytical memos containing the researcher’s language
c. quotations of participants’ words and statement
d. paraphrasing participants’ language to change the meaning
153. An inaccurate statement regarding narrative structure structures is
a. qualitative studies are encoded for different audience
b. the authorial presence is acknowledged by various literary devices
c. the research tradition which emphasizes a full descriptive narrative is grounded theory
d. some critical studies adopt a substantive report structure and others employ experimental forms of evocative representation
154. Entry into the field is guided by
a. probability sampling
b. an analysis of the foreshadowed problem
c. seeking friends to interview
d. the need to obtain a holistic to portray of the larger social context
155. Which of the following is an inappropriate research role?
a. Participant observer
b. Interviewer
c. Dual role of participant and researcher
d. Complete observer or full participant
156. Data collection strategies include
a. participant observation
b. in-depth interviews
c. documents and artefact collection
d. all of the above and supplementary techniques
157. Participant observation requires description of
a. who is in the group or social scene
b. when and where the social scene occurs
c. how the group operates
d. all of the above
158. In-depth interviews are usually
a. informal conversation interviews
b. interview guide interviews
c. standardized open-response interviews
d. closed response interview
159. In-depth interviewers
a. always tape record the interview sessions
b. seldom field test the interview protocol
c. avoid alternative questions and probes
d. write interview elaborations of each interview
160. In-depth interviews
a. are similar to interrogations
b. encourage interviewee participation with pauses and probes
c. adhere to rigid question sequence
d. use dichotomous response questions
161. Documents and artifacts
a. are useful for verifying other data
b. is limited to personal document
c. are data accepted at face value
d. are seldom available
162. A project proposal should, generally written in Future Tense.
A. True
B. False
163. Correlation research differs from experimental research, in that, involve
manipulation of variable.
A. True
B. False
164. Internal validity of an experimental study refers to whether the results of the study
can be generalized to similar setting
A. True
B. False
165. Which research design is most appropriate for determining cause and effect relation
between variable?
A. Correlation
B. Ex-Post Facto
C. Experimental
166. Which of the following activities of the interviewing process by the researcher can mar the interview session?
A. Establishing rapport with the interviewee
B. Showing surprises to response given by the interview
C. Both A and B
167. An observation research will NOT require the development of data collection
instrument.
A. True
B. False
168. If you are interested in studying how a teacher and his/her pupils interact in the
classroom, which of the following data collection procedure will be most appropriate for the study?
A. Interview
B. Questionnaire
C. Observation
169. Which of the following methods of data collection is NOT a self-report technique?
A. Interview
B. Questionnaire
C. Observation
170. A researcher studies the attitude of all Senior High School teachers in the Cape
Coast Metropolis towards the preparation of daily lesson notes. What type of
research design did the researcher use?
A. Experimental Design
B. Correlation Design
C. Descriptive Design
171. Educational index help the education researcher to identify primary source?
A. True
B. False
72. If you have socio-economic background as a variable in your research, how will you
categorize the different background?
A. Good, average and low
B. High, average and low
C. Lower, middle and upper
D. Rich, middle and poor
73. Two types of question items constructed for a questionnaire are ………….……
questions.
A. brief and extended form
B. high and low order
C. open and closed ended
D. selection and supply
74. Another name for the personal data requested from subjects in a research is …………..
A. biographical information
B. classified information
C. dependent information
D. general information
75. The two forms of administering questionnaire are …………….
A. immediate collection and collection after a time
B. individual administration and mailing
C. individual and group administration
D. personal administration and mailing
76. Which of the following is not a type of validity for questionnaire?
A. Content validity
B. Construct validity
C. Distributive validity
D. Face validity
77. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good questionnaire?
A. It must depict the central theme of the research question
B. It should be as short as possible, seeking only relevant information
C. It should seek data on what exists in books and reports
D. The items should be stated in a logical
78. The process of assigning numerals to answers from a questionnaire for the purpose of
analyzing is known as …………..
A. coding
B. data entry
C. editing
D. frequency
79. Which of the following are frequency distributions?
A. Histograms
B. Pie chart
C. Percentage bars
D. All the above
80. What does the standard deviation represent in any one distribution of scores?
A. Amount of variability
B. Relative position of the mean
C. Similarity of a group’s performance
D. Typical performance
81. For which of the following cases may we say that a particular test has validity?
A. Appropriate inferences may be made from the test.
B. The test results are useful for our intended purposes.
C. We are able to make meaningful comparisons between the test score and the
individual taking the test.
82. The distinctive feature of an action research is ……………..
A. accessibility to subjects
B. administration of treatment
C. use of intervention
D. theoretical background
83. State any two forms of observation that can be used in Action research.
A. Participant and non-participant
B. Direct and indirect
84. Which of the following is a graphical representation of assessment results
…………………
A. cumulative frequency
B. frequency distribution table
C. grouped frequency table
D. histogram of assessment results
85. Which of the following best explains the meaning of educational research?
A. Systematic method of gathering and interpreting information in education.
B. A way of generating solution to education problems.
C. Different method of data generation in education.
D. Empirical method of data generation in education.
86. A process of obtaining knowledge in which ways of doing things or handling problems
and from one group to another is termed…………..
A. authority
B. logic
C. personal experience
D. tradition
87. A variable that affects the outcome of the independent variable but is not known to the
researcher and therefore not controlled is termed………….
A. confounding
B. categorical
C. dependent
D. extraneous
88. The sample used by research work is usually selected from …………
A. accessible population
B. available population
C. random numbers
D. target population
89. Sampling procedure which is used to select a sample based on a specific characteristic
is known as……………
A. purposive sampling
B. simple random sampling
C. stratified sampling
D. systematic sampling
90. Delimitation of a study refers to the ……………
A. confines of the study
B. current status of phenomena
C. geographical area of the study
D. limitation of the study
91. Objectivity, verification, control of bias and precision are characteristics of ………..
A. generalization
B. scientific enquiry
C. theoretical explanation
D. theoretical explanation
E. theories
92. The sampling procedure whereby the researcher begins the research with a small
number of individuals who have characteristics that are required and are available to
the researcher is
A. convenience sampling
B. purposive sampling
C. quota sampling
D. snow-ball sampling
93. Observers will vary in the degree to which they……………..
A. are trained for conducting the study
B. are involved with participants in the setting
C. are influence by experimental bias
D. interact with the participants
94. The difference between action research and applied research is that action research can
be carried out on a large sample resulting in university applicable findings.
A. True
B. False
95. What is the standard deviation of a class of thirty where everybody has 15 out of 20
items correct?
A. 5
B. 0
C. 15
D. 35
96. Among the measures of dispersion, which one is the most important?
A. Inter quartile range
B. Range
C. Standard deviation
D. Variance
97. List two importance of the mean.
i.
ii.
98. List one importance of median.
i.
99. The type of research in which a teacher determines which grouping procedure results in
the achievement for all pupils in a class is termed ………..
A. action research
B. analytic research
C. applied research
D. basic research
100.The purpose of educational research is to …………
A. collect data on educational phenomena
B. determine educational phenomena
C. state educational phenomena
D. understand and explain educational phenomena
101. Which of the following type of research can be undertaken by a classroom teacher to
solve his/her problem in the classroom?
A. Action research
B. Applied research
C. Basic research
D. Evaluation research
SECTION B
1) a. Define the term research in your own words
b. List and explain any four characteristics of the scientific methods
c. What are the definitions of the 5 general classification of educational research by purpose
2) a. Classify each of the following statements as NOMINAL, ORDINAL, INTERVAL OR RATIO LEVEL OF MEASUREMENT
b. List any four (4) characteristics of a good research problem. Explain any two.
3) a. What are the three main methods a researcher may use in collecting data for his/her study?
b. List two advantages and two disadvantages of each of the methods stated at question 6
4) a. List and explain any four (4)sources of research problem
b. List any four (4) characteristics of a good research problem. Explain any two
